World Veterinary Day 2024

 

Infectious Coryza/roup or contagious catarrh

Biosecurity Role in Poultry Industry

 

What is Biosecurity?

            Biosecurity means protection of life. In Poultry biosecurity means prevention and control of pathogens to enter and spread into and between the flocks. Good biosecurity is like a chain. If anybody who does not follow the biosecurity roles, he breaks the chain. The basic purpose of biosecurity is:

A.    Prevention of pathogens to enter the flock.

B.    To increase farm productivity and quality.

C.    Minimize the risk of food safety pathogens (e.g., Salmonella)

D.    For the betterment of animal welfare standards.

Biosecurity level for farm:

a.     Daily biosecurity measures

b.     Challenge condition biosecurity measures

Basic Measures for every farm:

               I.         Maintenance of boundary fence around the farm to prevent unauthorized entry of animals and humans.

             II.         Farm gate should be always closed and hold a badge of “No entry for unauthorized people”.

           III.         No entrance for any vehicle (including Vet) into the farm area, only farm manager’s vehicle will be into farm premises.

           IV.         Farm manager will not bring his vehicle outside the farm until or unless there is an emergency.

             V.         Car parking & housing colony of farm workers should be outside the farm boundary (proper demarcation).

           VI.         Tire dip and foot dip at the entrance of farm

         VII.         Shower room/tunnel sprayer for the entrance of only authorized personals.

 

A.   Daily Biosecurity Measures:

1.     Daily record keeping for the entrance of all employees/visitors to the farm

2.     Logbook should contain date, name, company, last visit of any livestock site, purpose of visit to current farm, time in, out and sign.

3.     Every worker & visitors must take shower from head to toe before entering farm premises.

4.     Wear special cloths and shoes   farm which should be removed before leaving farm premises.

5.     Use of foot dips and hand sanitizer at the entrance of each shed.

6.     Workers/Vet do not own a pet bird or contact outside the farm.

7.     If anyone from employees has influenza and diarrhea, he is not allowed to enter the farm, he must quickly inform the farm manager.

8.     No visitor is allowed to enter in the farm prior to the approval of farm manager/company management.

9.     All the visitors must take shower before & after visiting the farm

For Vehicles and equipment in Farm:

1.     Only essential vehicle will be allowed to enter the farm & ensure that it is fully clean & disinfected.

2.     Disinfect the truck/vehicle before entering the farm.

3.     The truck/vehicle crew must use the footbath. They are not allowed to enter the shed.

Rodent, pest, and Insect control:

1.     Please make sure all the sheds are wild as well as migratory birds’ proof and pest proof as much as possible.

2.     Check the baits daily and replace it with new one if required.

3.     Make sure shed is clean from all insects, bed bugs, darkling beetles.

4.     No animal or pet is allowed into the farm boundary.

Cleaning and ground maintenance:

1.     Always wear farm boots/gum boots and uniform in the farm.

2.     Clean foot bath daily and fill with fresh disinfectant.

3.     Feed spill must be cleaned

4.     Clean the wet litter from the shed as soon as possible.

Sanitation and waste disposal:

1.     Keep all-in, all-out practice.

2.     Visit younger flock first, then older and in the last sick flock.

3.     Collect the dead birds daily and dispose of them in proper method (burial in designated area, incineration, or composting).

4.     Provide proper ventilation to reduce the risk of pathogens.

5.     Follow the proper vaccination schedule and deworming schedule.

6.     Check the expiry of vaccination/medication before use.

 

B.   Challenge conditions biosecurity measures:

It is necessary to have a clear guideline, when acting plan for suspected outbreak of diseases. Like AI, ND, IBD, Salmonellosis, etc.

1.     Gate must be closed for all time

2.     No visitor allowed on site until its essential.

3.     Company officials will discontinue routine visits until and unless problem goes away.

4.     No routine works only emergency works need to be done.

5.     If there is an essential visit needed, then take head-toe shower before and after visit.

6.     To visit the site a complete set of cloths, footwear, hair cover, and mask must require.

7.      Vehicle (feed carrying, diesel/petrol etc.) must be washed before and after visit the farm.

8.     No birds, or litter should be moved in & out of the farm until the disease status become clear.

Cleaning & Disinfection Stages in farm:

Ensure all cleaning procedures and in-place cleaning programmes are adhered to. Personal protective equipment (PPE) must be worn during all stages of the cleaning process, including Overalls, eye/face protection, safety footwear, gloves, respiratory equipment (where appropriate) etc.

1.     Birds and Litter removed from site.

a.     Remove all the birds and litter from the site before cleaning starts, to minimize the disease transfer.

b.    Remove all removable equipment (feeders, bell drinkers, etc.) from the poultry house and dip them in a tub with a solution of heavy detergent to remove the soiling and any other organic material then disinfect them with proper disinfectant.

c.     Dry all the equipment’s and store them in a clean area, till returned to cleaned and disinfected poultry house.

d.    When the litter has been removed mechanically from the house, remove the organic material by scraping/brushing. It is important to make the detergent more efficient.

2.     Clean & washed down surfaces

a.     Make a solution of detergent.

b.    spread the solution at all surfaces, starting from ceiling to floor and from end to front of house, with a pressure washer, set at 45-70 bar or 650-1015 psi. Allow at least 15-30 minutes before washing all used detergent residues and soiling out of the house, with clean water at no more than 45 bar (650psi).

c.     All the house to dry to increase the absorption of disinfectant and reduce the dilution of disinfectant.

3.     Flush out the water system

a.     Drain the water system by washing away dirty water. To remove the biofilm and medication residues clean the tanks with disinfectant. Apply disinfectant in the tank and then wait for 15-30 minutes then flush it out. Make a solution of disinfectant and put it into the water pipelines and allow the 12 hours’ time to break down the biofilm deposits. Keep pressing the water nipples to remove the choking issue. Then after 12 hours flush it out with fresh water. Then fill the water tank with fresh and clean water and flush it out again.

4.     Clean the feedlines.

a.     Clean the feedlines with lime and fresh sawdust combination to remove any feed residues from the feed line. It will help to minimize the mycotoxins problem.

5.     Application of disinfectant in the house.

a.     For terminal disinfection make a solution of glutaraldehyde & quaternary ammonium compound base disinfectant and apply it in the house starting from apex of roof to the ground. From back of house to front of the house. Let it is dry for 12-48 hours.

6.     Replace equipment and new litter

a.     Put a fresh new bedding material (sawdust, rice husk or coffee husk) and equipment’s in the house and close all the openings of the house.

7.     Fumigation of house

a.     After sealing the house from all sides, fumigate the house with formaldehyde or Orthophenylphenol at least 24-48 hours before arrival of chicks. During fumigation, keep PPE (gas mask etc.)

8.     Arial disinfection of poultry house:

a.     After 7 days of restocking the poultry house, make a solution of glutaraldehyde & quaternary ammonium compound chemical and spray it on the birds to minimize the bacterial load twice a day.

 

 

 

 

 

 

World Camel Day 2022

 

Happy World Milk Day 1st June 2022

 

World Egg Day 2021

 

Copper (Cu) in Poultry an Overview.

 Now a days usage of copper in poultry diet is common practice. However, there are many factors to study.

Copper is an essential trace mineral for livestock and poultry. Copper as nutrient got seekers attention first time when it was known for maintaining haemoglobin levels, even copper is little bit present in blood. However in animals it got more importance in 1930s when it was reveled that copper deficiency is cause of certain diseases in cattle. Further studies regarding copper deficiency extended to mapping of areas around the world which were deficient in copper and then copper was added in the normal diet of animals.

Requirement of Copper

Normal range of copper is 4-8 ppm. Copper can exist in 3 oxidation states with different (2) variants and  its reactivity with other ions is unavoidable but it is variable. we can develop "organic" form of copper by using this reactivity. Copper acts as cofactor (also known as cuproenzymes) in for different enzymes in body (blood & tissue). For example copper is a precursor of Beta-monoxygenase, which catalyzes the hydroxylation of dopamine to norepinephrine which is required for the production of GnrH. Supplementation of cu in laying hens diet is mainly for the change in the lipid profile of eggs. There is an efficient recycling of copper by kidneys, however when dietary supply increases from requirement then bile is the use to clear the excess amount of copper because bile is poor source of recycling. If copper increases from normal requirement up to 40 times then it can be used as antibacterial.

Cu deficiency sign & symptoms

Copper deficiency in poultry leads to severe health problems including growth depression, bone disability, poor feathering, anemia, rupture of aorta, failure of synthesize desmosine the cross link  precursor of elastin. failure of lysine incorporation into desmosine molecule. 

Source of Copper

Copper sulphate is often used as standard, although chloride, carbonate and oxide form is also commercially available but theses are inorganic form of copper. From last few years different issues have arisen which have again increased the interest of scientists regarding its source and bioavailability. Inorganic copper is less bioavailable as compared to organic copper. Usually amino acid (Glycine, Methionine, MHA and soy protein) or organic acids (Propionic acid) attached copper termed as organic source of copper have revived the bio-efficacy of mineral supplementation

Availability of Copper

 Conventionally copper requirement is entirely met by supplements with no amount of minerals  present in cereals and proteins. New study is mainly focusing on the availability of minerals such as Cu in natural feed ingredients. Scientist are trying to reduce the supply of Cu and other minerals in manure level and environmental pollution. Measuring total level of copper in major ingredients is easy however, measurement of mineral bioavailability is a complex procedure.

Copper Bioavailability

Bioavailability of copper in natural feed ingredients varies with ingredient wise. the bioavailability of Cu in wheat and maize is near to 80%  while 40% to soybean meal. This low percentage of bioavailability of Cu might be due to binding with phytate. Bioavailability of Cu in these ingredients can be increased by using phytase in diet. CuSO4 and CuO are conventional source of copper, although bioavailability values depend on numerous factors around 65-75% on an average. Tribasic copper chloride in now a days available in market due to its non-hygroscopicity.

Organic Copper efficacy

Normally termed organic copper based products are combined with Lysine, Methionine, Glycine and soybean proteins. It is normally claimed that this type of minerals are differently absorbed and metabolised and also provide less opportunity for interference with other trace minerals. 

Inorganic Copper Toxicity

when copper level increases 100 times from normal toxicity occurs. First, copper accumulates in the liver, but when copper level reach 25 times from normal, then Cu enters into the circulation and starts destructing RBCs. No natural feed ingredient is sufficient high in Cu to cause toxicity.

Mineral Interactions

Copper, zinc, iron and molybdenum interaction is classical example of mineral interaction. Major portion of copper is absorbed from the duodenum because zinc also attached to the same mucosal carrier, high level of dietary zinc cause competition,  leading to deficiency of copper, however it is difficult to diagnose, since the diet contains normal level of copper. Commercial use of pharmacological level of diet Cu for growth promotion in meat birds has been questioned in terms of compatibility with Phytase enzymes. Rich level of dietary Cu result in reduced solubility of phytic acid, which effect enzyme activity. There has been some  debate regarding impact of high level of Cu requirement for certain  amino acids. Chicks growth depressed by feeding up to 700 mg/kg dietary Cu is alleviated by adding extra DL-methionine. It is common practice to add extra methionine during usage of commercial copper level.

Copper impact on cholesterol metabolism

Normally high level of Cu in diet has consistent effect on reducing egg Cholesterol level. Feeding Cu up to 250 ppm has been reported to reduce egg cholesterol by up to 25% meat in broilers. Consistent use of Cu to reduce egg cholesterol is that  >95% is excreted in the manure.

Copper as an antibacterial

Still high level of copper is used as growth promoter, at 250 mg/kg diet, though the accumulation of Cu in manure leads to the legislative restrictions. Due to addition of dietary Cu level in diet the color of bird manure changes significantly, and change in gut microflora is also assumed. It is noticed that feeding commercial level of Cu may have beneficial effect up to 15% improved digestion in haemicellulose. The utter most results of high level copper feeding can be seem to occur after 2-3 flocks have been grown on reused litter, implying the change in microbial status of litter. Increase in Cu level in manure increases the soil Cu. High level of manure Cu suppress microbial uricase activity, limiting ammonia release.

Conclusion

The minimum requirement of Cu for poultry is around 5-8 mg/kg. Success with low levels of supplemental Cu (2-3 mg/kg) seem predicated on proportional reduction of all trace minerals and not Cu in isolation. when lower level of Cu is considered as a mean of reducing environmental pollution, then the bioavailability of Cu in traditional diet ingredients need to be considered. If there is requirement of reducing Cu level in manure, then there needs to be examined bioavailability of Cu in major feed ingredients used worldwide. Normally >90% Cu consumed appears in the manure, where soil accumulation is less problematic than the potential leaching of Cu into watercourses.

 

Veterinary MCQs of Theriogenology

 

1.      Ferguson’s reflex initiates release of which hormone at parturition in cow is:

(a)    Oxytocin         (c) Prostaglandin

(b)   Estrogen          (d) Relaxin

2.      Abortion in 3^rd trimester is usually due to:

(a)    Tricomonas      (c) Brucella

(b)   Leptospira        (d) Campylobactor

3.       Os penis is found in:

(a)    Camel              (c) Horse

(b)   Dog                 (d) Bull

4.      Best time of inseminating cow is:

(a)    Proestrus         (c) Metoestrus

(b)   Midestrus       (d) Dioestrus

5.      Which ruminant have difuse placenta:

(a)    Camel             (c) Sheep

(b)   Buffalo            (d) Cattle

6.      Post-coital pyometra is often associated with:

(a)    Brucellosis       (c) Trichomoniasis

(b)   Vibriosis          (d) Tuberculosis

7.      Incapacity to copulate is impotenta:

(a)    Coeundi          (c) Fundi

(b)   Genurndi         (d) Genetiea

8.      Rams balanoposthities is:

(a)    Red rot            (c) Measle rot

(b)   Sizzle rot         (d) Pizzle rot

9.      Seminal vesicles and cowpers glands are absent in:

(a)    Horse              (c) Pig

(b)   Cow                (d) Dog

10.  The gland secretes clear fluid that add to volume, nutrients & buffering to semen:

(a)    Prostate

(b)   Glandular vesiculares

(c)    Vas deferens

(d)   Caropes gland

11.  Sigmoid flexure is absent in:

(a)    Stallion           (c) Boar

(b)   Bull                 (d) Ram

12.  Vaginal hyperplasia in bitches is common in:

(a)   First oestrus

(b)   During advance pregnancy

(c)    During Mid gestation

(d)   In old age

13.  Frolic’s syndrome occurs mainly due to:

(a)   Tumors of pituitary

(b)   Excessive intake of fat

(c)    High estrogen level

(d)   Low level of luteinizing hormone

14.  PG 600 contains:

(a)    PG 600IU

(b)   200IU eCG + 400IU hCG

(c)    400IU eCG + 200IU hCG

(d)   300IU eCG + 300IU hCG

15.  In bitch ovulation occurs:

(a)   2 days after LH surge

(b)   On day of LH surge

(c)    4 days after LH surge

(d)   3 days after LH surge

16.  In mare pregnancy can be diagnosed as early as:

(a)    Day 25            (c) Day 40

(b)   Day 17            (d) Day 55

17.  Eclampsia is a metabolic disease of:

(a)    Bitch               (c) Cow

(b)   Sow                 (d) Ewe

18.  Tobin’s medium is used for sample containing.

(a)    Trichomonas     (c) Listeria

(b)   Campylobactor   (d) Leptospira

19.  Treatment of SIPS includes:

(a)    Pituitary extract

(b)   Any haemostate

(c)    Ovariohysterectomy

(d)   A & B

20.  T shaped uterus is found in:

(a)    Mare               (c) Cattle

(b)   Bitch               (d) Camel

21.  During experimental manipulation and storage embryos are kept in culture medium at:

(a)    0-5^oC               (c) -196^oC

(b)   37^oC                (d) None of these

22.  Non-surgical embryo collection method is preferred because:

(a)    It give 100% ova collection from ovulation

(b)   It will protect from adhesions of organs

(c)    Both a & b

(d)   None

23.  Penicillin is drug of choice for puerperal mastitis if administered:

(a)    I/M                  (c) Both a & b

(b)   I/V                   (d) None of these

24.  Nymphomanic condition is associated with:

(a)    Luteal cyst

(b)   Parovarian cyst

(c)    Follicular cyst

(d)   All of the above

25.  Ovulation in cows occur:

(a)    Within the heat period

(b)   After cessation of heat

(c)    Both a & b

(d)   None

26.  Ziehl-Neelson method of staining can be used for the diagnosis of:

(a)    Trichomonas    (c) Brucella

(b)   Campylobactr  (d) None

27.  For behavioral sign of heat the hormonal profile of the cow should be:

(a)    Low progesterone and low estrogen

(b)   High progesterone and high estrogen

(c)    Low progesterone and high estrogen

(d)   High progesterone and low estrogen

28.  Early embryonic death causing infertility problem is due to:

(a)    Trichomonas    (c) Campylobactor

(b)   Brucellas           (d) None

29.  The interval between two successive heat is:

(a)    Calving interval

(b)   Mean interservice interval

(c)    Interoestrus interval

(d)   Submission rate

30.  Condition of adrenal virilism can be seen in:

(a)    Dentigerous cyst

(b)   Paraovarian cyst

(c)    Luteal cyst

(d)   Follicular cyst

31.  Days open or open interval is:

(a)    Calving interval

(b)   Mean calving to conception interval

(c)    Submission rate

(d)   None

32.  A.B.R. test is associated with:

(a)    Trichomonas organism

(b)   Brucella organism

(c)    Listeria

(d)   None

33.  The first calf following AI with frozen semen was reported to be born in year:

(a)    1948                (c) 1953

(b)   1951                (d) 1961

34.  The initial successful attempts in freezing of spermatozoa at -79 celsius were reported by:

(a)    Polge               (c) Hafez

(b)   Rowson           (d) Roberts

35.  The desirable concentration of actively motile spermatozoa in frozen bull semen should be:

(a)    10-15 million

(b)   20-30 million

(c)    60 million

(d)   More than 60 million

 

36.  The commonly used model of AV used for collection of bull semen is:

(a)    Swedish          (c) Russian

(b)   Danish            (d) Japanese

37.  The most critical temperature a cell must survive during freezing and thawing is between:

(a)    15-35 degree Celsius

(b)   4-15 degree Celsius

(c)    -15 to -60 degree Celsius

(d)   Below -65 degree Celsius

38.  An ideal semen extender shoud be:

(a)    Isotonic

(b)   Have buffering capacity

(c)    Act as energy source

(d)   All of above

39.  The cellular damage to sperms during freezing/thawing occurs due to:

(a)    Internal ice crystal formation

(b)   Increased solute concentration due to withdrawal of water

(c)    Both a & b

(d)   None

40.  Which of the following cryoprotectants can be used for deep freezing of spermatozoa:

(a)    Glycerol

(b)   Dimethylsulphoxide

(c)    Ethylene glycol

(d)   All of above

41.  The cryoprotective properties of glycerol are due to:

(a)    Ability of binding water and thereby decreasing the freezing point of solutions

(b)   Salt buffering action

(c)    Alteration in crystal formation

(d)   All of above

42.  At what temperature time protocol should milk be heated to destroy the spermicidal factor present in it, before being used for extending semen:

(a)    60-65 degree Celsius for 5 minutes

(b)   72-75 degree Celsius for 10 minutes

(c)    92-95 degree Celsius for 10 minutes

(d)   Boiled for 5 minutes

43.  The spermicidal factor present in fresh milk is:

(a)    Lacithene        (c) Lactose

(b)   Lactenin         (d) Fructose

44.  Zwitter-ionic buffers are being preferred for extending semen because they:

(a)    Prevent cellular damage during freezing

(b)   Have better buffering capacity

(c)    Microscopic examination of extended semen is easy

(d)   Are easily available

45.  The average equilibration time needed for freezing of bull spermatozoa is:

(a)    4 hours at room temperature

(b)   4 hours at 5 degree celsius

(c)    6 hours at 20 degree celsius

(d)   None

46.  Select the correct sequence:     Semen volume: Species

A 30-250ml        Bull

B 1-15ml            Boar

C 125-500ml      Dog

D 1-25ml            Stallion

(a)    ABCD             (c) ACDB

(b)   BCDA             (d) BACD

47.  The volume of semen is dependent upon the secretions from:

(a)    Testes and vas deferens

(b)   Cauda epididymis

(c)    Seminal vesicles

(d)   All of above

48.  The most widely accepted method to evaluated thawed semen is:

(a)    Individual motility

(b)   Sperm concentration

(c)    Progressive motility

(d)   Acrosomal integrity

49.  Teasing a bull before semen collection may result in:

(a)    Increased semen volume, whereas sperm concentration is reduced

(b)   Increased semen volume as well as sperm concentration

(c)    Reduced semen volume and sperm concentration

(d)   No effect

50.  Small ejaculate volume may be because of:

(a)    Incomplete ejaculation

(b)   Seminal vesiculitis

(c)    Excessive use of the bull

(d)   All of above

51.  In addition to spermatozoa which of the following may be seen in stained semen smears:

(a)    Spermatids

(b)   Medusa cells  

(c)    Squamous epithelial cells

(d)   All of the above

52.  The viral contamination of frozen semen which renders it unfit for artificial insemination is:

(a)    Blue tongue virus

(b)   Bovine herpes virus-1

(c)    Bovine viral diarrhea virus

(d)   All of the above

53.  The most effective method for controlling viral contamination in semen is:

(a)    Treatment of the affected males

(b)   Immunization of the affected males

(c)    Use of antiviral agents in extended frozen semen

(d)   Serological testing of bulls and culling of the reactors

54.  The semen from ram can be collected more frequently because they have:

(a)    Higher sperm production rates and less semen volume

(b)   Short spermatogenic cycle

(c)    Large epididymal sperm reserves

(d)   All of above

55.  The site of AI with frozen stallion semen in mares is:

(a)    Intra cervical   (c) Anterior vagina

(b)   Intrauterine   (d) All of above

56.  The active component of egg yolk which protects the spermatozoa during extending is:

(a)    Methionine

(b)   Phosphotidyl choline

(c)    Phosphotidyl serine

(d)   Both b & c

57.  Artificial insemination in mammals was first tried by:

(a)    E.I. Evanhoff

(b)   A.V. Lewen hock

(c)    Lazzaro spallanzani

(d)   None

58.  In which of the following species AI was first tried.

(a)    Bovine             (c) Equine

(b)   Canine             (d) Caprine

59.  The first method of collection of semen is performed by:

(a)    Fistula method

(b)   Swab method

(c)    Artificial vagina method

(d)   Electro ejaculation method

60.  One of the following is not added to the frozen semen because of its toxicity:

(a)    Chloramphenicol

(b)   Streptomycin

(c)    Sulphonamides

(d)   Penicillin

61.  The use of insulating bag is done to prevent:

(a)    Spilling of the semen

(b)   Trickling of water into the collection tube

(c)    Contamination

(d)   Temperature shock

62.  The extender which can preserve semen at room temperature is:

(a)    Egg yolk citrate

(b)   CME (coconut milk extender)

(c)    TRIS

(d)   None

63.  In the diluent for freezing semen cryoprotective action is provided by the presence of which of the following:

(a)    Lecithin          (c) Riboflavin

(b)   Creatine           (d) None

64.  Which of the following is true for the electro-ejaculation method:

(a)    Useful for getting semen of high spermatozoan concentration

(b)   Introduced first by Gunn in 1936 for rams

(c)    Useful for all species of animals

(d)   None

65.  In artificial vagina method of collection the temperature of water is maintained for:

(a)   Giving optimum condition of the vagina as during oestrous (39oC)

(b)   Because the semen collected should have that temperature

(c)    It is arbitory and of no significance

(d)   None of the given statement is correct

66.  In the massage method of collection of semen, which of the following is true:

(a)   The semen obtained may contain more of seminal vesicle secretion.

(b)   Spread of disease is chocked

(c)    No much technicality is required

(d)   None

67.  By increased frequency of collection of semen:

(a)   There will be adverse effect on the quality of semen

(b)   There will be increased microbiological agents

(c)    There will be the change in the colour

(d)   None

68.  The detailed structure of spermatozoa was first studied by:

(a)    A. V. lewenhock     (c) A. spallanzani

(b)   E.J. Evanhoff           (d) None

69.  The sexual health of bull is modulated by:

(a)   Managemental factor

(b)   Environmental factor

(c)    Genetic factor

(d)   None

70.  The addition of glycerol to the diluent preserves the integrity of the sperm head by:

(a)    The action of dessication

(b)   Creating intracellular equibilibration

(c)    Providing metabolic substrates to sperms

(d)   None

71.  Sperm concentration per ml is highest in which of the following:

(a)    Stallion            (c) Buck

(b)   Bull                 (d) Boar

72.  Primordial germ cells pass from male fetus to the female fetus in early pregnancy and is termed as the which freemartin theory:

(a)    Cellular          (c) Amalgamation

(b)   Combined       (d) Separate

73.  The main factor for affecting fertility in Artificial insemination is:

(a)   Poor quality of semen with poor technology

(b)   Average quality of semen with good technology

(c)    Good quality of semen with good technology

(d)   None

74.  The yellow colour of guemsey bull semen is due to:

(a)    Provitamin A        (c) Riboflavin

(b)   Cynocobalamine   (d) None

75.  The volume of semen collected per ejaculation in bucks:

(a)   Less than 1ml in most cases

(b)   More than 2ml but less than 3 ml usually

(c)    More than 5ml generally

(d)   None

76.  The “Dag defect” of spermatozoa is grouped under:

(a)   Primary abnormality

(b)   Secondary abnormality

(c)    Miscellaneous abnormality

(d)   None

77.  The impaired semen production by the bull might be ascribed to:

(a)    Daily exercise

(b)   Sudden and forcefull exercise

(c)    Free movement of bull in the room

(d)   None

78.  The average volume of semen collected in buffaloes are:

(a)    More than 10 ml

(b)   Less than 1 mil

(c)    Does not exceed 5 ml

(d)   None

79.  Which of the following are the buffalo bull spermatozoa:

(a)    Oval in shape

(b)   More rectangular

(c)    Square in shape

(d)   None

80.  The collection of semen in large number Rams for testing the quality is done only by:

(a)    Artificial vagina method

(b)   Massage method

(c)    Electrical stimulation

(d)   None

81.  The dilution of buck semen should be done at:

(a)   1:10 to 1:20 level

(b)   1:1 to 1:5 level

(c)    1:10 to 1:15 level

(d)   None

82.  In cows and ewes, ovulation follows the preovulatory LH surge by about:

(a)    12 hrs. to 18 hrs

(b)   24 hrs. to 30 hrs.

(c)    30 hrs. to 36 hrs.

(d)   40 hrs. to 45 hrs.

83.  The fertile life span of sperm and ova in mare’s reproductive tract is:

(a)    30-48 and 20-24 hours, respectively

(b)   24-72 and 8-10 hours, respectively

(c)    30-36 and 6-8 hours, respectively

(d)   72-120 and 6-8 hrs. respectively

84.  For optimum result of ET in cattle, the recipient should be in oestrus:

(a)   Within 12 hours of donor

(b)   Beyond 24 hours of donor

(c)    Before 24 hours of donor

(d)   After 24 hours of donor

85.  Mechanism of transfer of amino acids, sugars and the most water soluble vitamins across the placenta is predominantly by:

(a)    Simple diffusion

(b)   Phagocytosis

(c)    Pinocytosis

(d)   Active transport system

86.  In cows, maternal recongintion and implantation of embryo usually occur by day:

(a)    12-18, respectively

(b)   12-13 and 16, respectively

(c)    15-17 and 18-22, respectively

(d)   14-16 and  36-38, respectively

87.  A multiple exposure photography system using polarid camera gives an instant and accurate estimates of:

(a)    Sperm velocity alone

(b)   Sperm motility alone

(c)    Sperm concentration alone

(d)   Both sperm motility and concentration

88.  Pregnancy can be confirmed accurately by detecting estrone sulphate in the plasma/milk of goats earliest by day.

(a)    20 after breeding

(b)   40 after breeding

(c)    50 after breeding

(d)   72 after breeding

89.  The drug of choice in the treatment of mummified fetus in cow is:

(a)   Lutalyse/dinofertin 25mg I/M

(b)   Dexamethosone 20-30mg I/M

(c)    Diethylstilbestrol 50-80 mg I/M

(d)   Combination of all three

90.  In cows and buffaloes, the luteolytic dose of PGF2α or its analogue is only one-fifth or less that of I/M dose, when administered via:

(a)    I/V route         (c) I/Ut route

(b)   S/C route        (d) IVSM route

91.  Cervix also serves as reservoir for which of the following:

(a)    Semen             (c) Embryo

(b)   Oocyte            (d) Polar bodies

92.  GnRH is which type of structure:

(a)    Steroidal          (c) Collagenase

(b)   Peptide           (d) Fibrin

93.  Photoperiodism is a characteristic of the reproductive cycle or sexual activity in:

(a)   Sheep, goat and horse

(b)   Dog

(c)    Cat                  (d) Cow

94.  White heifer disease associated with which genetic defect of the developmental nature:

(a)   Colour of the coat

(b)   Colour of the tail

(c)    Colour of the hoof

(d)   Colour of the horn

95.  FSH release is inhibited by:

(a)    Inhibin            (c) Dopamine

(b)   Adrenaline      (d) Nor-adrenaline

96.  Anterior pituitary secretion are which of the following:

(a)    Proteins           (c) Acacia

(b)   Glycoprotein  (d) Viscid

97.  High plane of nutrition before mating increases number of the offspring mostly in:

(a)    Cows               (c) Ewes

(b)   Buffaloes        (d) Horses

98.  One of the best subject for synchronization of the estrum is which animal:

(a)    Goat                (c) Cows

(b)   Ewes               (d) Buffaloes

99.  Which hormone is secreted by acidophils of pituitary:

(a)    STH                 (c) ACTH

(b)   TSH                 (d) FSH

100.   ACTH is secreted by:

(a)    Chromophores of pituitary

(b)   Adrenal cortex

(c)    Acidophills of pituitary

(d)   Basophils of pituitary