1. A sheep breed which is a cross of
Bikaneri ewes and Merino rams with long, fine wool is
a.
Gaddi
c. Malpuria
b.
Hissardale d. Corriedale
2. Chromosome number (2N) of Bubalis
bubalis is
a.
60 c. 48
b.
50 d. 46
3. Modification of normal gene expression
in which a particular gene at one locus masks the expression of at least one
other gene at a different chromosomal location is termed
a.
Crossing
over c. Mutation
b.
Epistasis
d. None of the above
4. Act of mating in sheep is termed as
a.
Crossing c. Tupping
b.
Breeding d. Copulation
5. First faecal material voided by a
new born calf is known as
a.
Faeces c. Muconium
b.
Excreta d. Copulation
6. Two genes of two different traits
located on the same chromosome are called
a.
Alleles c. Segregated
b.
Linked d. Intermediate
7. Starch equivalent based energy
system was given by
a.
Morriso n c.
Kellner
b.
Armsby d. Dubois
8. Crazy chick disease is caused due
to the deficiency of
a.
Vitamin
E c. Vitamin B12
b.
Vitamin
B1 d. Vitamin B1
9. Anti-nutritional factor present in
groundnut cake is a
a.
Aflatoxin c. Glucosinolate
b.
Glycogen d. None of the above
10. Heat treatment can destroy which
antinutitive factor found in soyabean cake
a.
Glucosinolate
b.
Trypsin
Inhibitor
c.
Aflatoxin
d.
Ricin
11. Post parturient haemoglobinuria or
Red Water Disease is basically caused due to acute deficiency of which mineral
in the blood?
a.
Copper c. Phosphorus
b.
Magnesium d. Calcium
12. Blind staggers is a condition of
cattle and sheep caused due to subacute poisoning with
a.
Maganese c. Lead
b.
Selenium d. None of the above
13. Purple colored comb, wattles and
tongue are characteristics of which breed of poultry?
a.
Aseel c. Kadaknath
b.
Chittagong d. None of the above
14. Parents of One generation passes on
the sex-linked characters to the opposite sex in next generation. This process
is known as
a.
Conjugation c. Cross-over unit
b.
Crossing
over d. Criss-cross inheritance
15. Reappearnce of an ancestral but not
parentral trait after several generation is called
a.
Atavism c. Asynaosis
b.
Autogamy d. Amphidiploid
16. Sulphar containing vitamins are
a.
Riboflavin
and biotin
b.
Biotin
and Choline
c.
Riboflavin
and Choline
d.
Biotin
and Thiamin
17. Fraction of all alleles that occur
at a given locus in a specified population is defined as
a.
Variation c. Gene frequency
b.
Heritability d. Regrassion
18. Full sib and half sib mating in
poultry and parent____ offspring or uncle__ cousin mating swine is most
commonly used in
a.
Outcrossing c. Pure breeding
b.
Inbreeding d. Strain crossing
19. High fat content upto 14% is found
in milk of which breed of buffalo
a.
Murrah c. Bhadawari
b.
Mehsana d. Surti
20. The bacterial population per ml of
rumen liquor in a cow is
a.
109
million c. 106 Million
b.
102
Million d. 104 million
21. Probiotics is classified under
a.
Feed
Supplement
b.
Feed
ingredient
c.
Feed
additive
d.
All
of the above
22. Babul seeds contain an
antinutritive factor
a.
Tannins c. Aflatoxin
b.
Ricin d. Oxalic acid
23. Best crop suitable for silage
making is
a.
Jowar c. Maize
b.
Bajra d. Oats
24. The rutting period in camel is from
a.
November
to March
b.
September
to January
c.
April
to August
d.
None
of the above
25. Which drug/salt should be used to
acidify the urine
a.
Sodium
Chloride
b.
Potassium
Chloride
c.
Ammonium
Chloride
d.
None
of the above
26. Griseofulvin can be used in the
treatment of ringworm. It is also an effective treatment for
a.
Chromomyosis
b.
Sporotrichosis
c.
Phcomyoasis
d.
Blastomycosis
27. Of the following the best first
antimicrobial agents to treat septicemia in a newborn foal would be
a.
Penicillin
and Gentamicin sulphate
b.
Trimethoprim
and Sulfadiazine
c.
Sodium
ampicillin and Streptomycin
d.
Chloramphanicol
28. Loading dose of a drug primarily
depends on
a.
Volume
of distribution
b.
Rate
of administration
c.
Clearance
d.
Half
life
29. Inter close interval depends on
a.
Half-life
of drug
b.
Age
of patient
c.
Dose
of drug
d.
Bioavailability
of drug
30. Which of the drug is bacteriostatic
a.
Sulphadimidine
b.
Griseofulvin
c.
Pancillin-G
d.
Cephalexin
31. Which of the following drugs
increases gastrointestinal motility?
a.
Glycopyrrolate
b.
Neostigmine
c.
Atropine
d.
None
of the above
32. Drug of choice for treatment of
acute organophosphate poisoning is
a.
Atropine
b.
Carbchol
c.
Neostigmine
d.
None
of the above
33. Environmental mastitis pathogens
include
a.
E.
coli
b.
Streptococcus
dysgalactiae
c.
Klebsiella
d.
All
of the above
34. Leptospirosis can be diagnosed
serologically by
a.
Microscopic
agglutination test (MAT)
b.
ELISA
c.
DNA
Probes
d.
All
of the above
35. Mad cow disease is caused by
a.
Bacteria c. Virus
b.
Protozoa d. Prion
36. The most common myocardial parasite
in the cow is
a.
Trichinella
spiralis
b.
Cysticerus
cellulosae
c.
Sarcocyssis
Spp.
d.
Cysticerus
bovis
37. Eggs of Demodex canis are
a.
Round
b.
Oval
c.
Spindle
shaped
d.
None of the above
38. The intermediate host of
paramphistomum cervi is
a.
Indoplanorbis
Exustus
b.
Gyraulus
convexiusculus
c.
Lymnea
lutaola
d.
None
of the above
39. Schistosoma indicum is present in
the
a.
Aorta
b.
Juglar
veins
c.
Renal
Artery
d.
Masenteric veins
40. Nasal granuloma is caused by
a.
Schistosoma
spindale
b.
Schistomsoma
haematobium
c.
Schistosoma
nasalis
d.
None
of the above
41. The ascaridia galli causes
a.
Diarrhea
b.
Emaciation
c.
Anaemia
d.
All
of the above
42. In equines arteritis is caused by
the larvae of
a.
Strongylus
vulgaris
b.
Stronglus
edantatus
c.
Stronglylus
Equinus
d.
All
of the above
43. Hydroid degeneration is
a.
Disturbance
in protein metabolism
b.
Cells
takes on clear fluid
c.
It
involves epithelial cells
d.
All
of the above
44. Which one is a benign neoplasm
a.
Fibroma
b.
Fibrosarcoma
c.
Adenosarcoma
d.
Lymphosarcoma
45. Over the right flank fluid splasing
sound may indicate
a.
Intestinal
obstruction
b.
Abomasal
volvulus
c.
Paralytic
ileus
d.
All
of the above
46. Hypothermia occurs in
a.
Shock
b.
Acute
rumen engorgement
c.
Parturient
paresis
d.
All
of the above
47. To examine the integrity of central
nervous system, the clinician should look for abnormalities of
a.
Mental
state
b.
Involuntary
muscles
c.
Posture
and gait
d.
All
of the above
48. Blue tongue virus is transmitted
through
a.
Ingestion
b.
Culicoids
Vector
c.
Inhalation
d.
All
of the above
49. The most common form of
actinomycosis of soft tissues is
a.
Involvement
of abomasum
b.
Involvement
of esophageal groove
c.
Involvement
of tongue
d.
None
of the above
50. Rabies causes
a.
Non-suppurative
encephalomyelitis
b.
Suppurative
encephalomyelitis
c.
Non-suppurative
encephalitis
d.
All
of the above
51. Colibacillosis is most common in
animals of age group
a.
1-3
days c. 1-3 months
b.
1-3
weeks d. All of the above
52. An investigation involving the
collection of information and in which a causal hypothesis is usually not
tested is called
a.
Survey c.
Synergism
b.
Surveillance d. None of the above
53. Spread of disease over large
geographical area is called
a.
Epidemic c. Pandemic
b.
Endemic d. None of the above
54. To avoid collapse of the lungs upon
closure of thoracotomy, the surgeon’s primary concern should be
a.
Suturing
the intercostal muscles adequately
b.
Suturing
the lateral thoracic musculature adequately
c.
Making
sure that the lung is moist before closure
d.
Creating
negative pressure in the pleural cavity
55. Displacement of the intestine
outside the abdominal cavity with displaced portion being covered with parietal
peritoneum is called
a.
Herniation
b.
Intterssusception
c.
Evnetration
d.
Volvulus
56. In reducing an elbow luxation in
the dog, the joint should be positioned by
a.
Extension
b.
Abduction
c.
Flexion
d.
Normal
standing position
57. The breed of dog that is most
susceptible to perianal fistulas is the
a.
Collie c. Boxer
b.
German
Shephard d. Bull dog
58. The hormone directly responsible
for preparing the uterine mucosa for implantation is
a.
Luteinizing
hormone
b.
Prolactin
c.
Estradiol
d.
Progesterone
59. The period of gestation where you
get abortion with trichomonas foetus infection is the
a.
Last
trimester
b.
First
Trimester
c.
Middle
trimester
d.
Last
week
60. In rectal palpation for detecting
early pregnancy in a cow, one of the dependable signs of pregnancy is detection
of
a.
Fetal
membrane slip and amniotic vesicle
b.
One
enlarged uterine horn
c.
Prominent
CL of one Ovary
d.
Fremitus
of the middle uterine artery
61. Endothelial chorial placentation
occurs in the
a.
Horse c. Cow
b.
Dog d. Sheep
62. A reasonably good feed conversion
ratio value of broiler of 0-6 weeks of age is
a.
1.6 c. 1.4
b.
1.8 d. 1.2
63. The thermos-neutral zone for
poultry ranges from
a.
13oC
to 24oC c. 24oC
to 38oC
b.
0oC
to 13oC d. None of the
above
64. The correct method of milking dairy
animals is
a.
Fisting c. stripping
b.
Knuckling d. None of the above
65. For producing 1 ml of milk quantity
of blood which passes through the secretory tissue of mammary gland
a.
400-500
ml c. 200-300 ml
b.
1000
ml d. None of the above
66. Floor space required per chick
during first in an artificial brooder is
a.
100-120
Sq. Cms.
b.
200-250
Sq. Cms
c.
150-180
Sq. Cms.
d.
None
of the above
67. In the deep litter system of
housing the material used for litter such as rise husk and poultry manure are
allowed to accumulate up to a depth of
a.
8-12
inches c. 12-18 inches
b.
0-6
inches d. 20-24 inches
68. Colostrum is fed to a new born calf
at what percentage of its body weight?
a.
5% C. 15%
b.
10% D. 20%
69. Bull nose ring is first inserted at
the age of
a.
8-12
months c. 24 months
b.
18
months d. 30 months
70. During first week of artificial
brooding the temperature of the brooder should be
a.
95oF c.
105oF
b.
100oF d.
None of the above
71. Horvet apparatus is generally used
to determine which physical property of milk?
a.
Boiling
point
b.
Electricity conductivity
c.
Freezing
point
d.
Density
72. In the HTST type of pasteurization
of mill the temperature and time is
a.
73oC
to 76oC for 60 seconds
b.
75oC
to 78oC for 45 seconds
c.
72.2oC
to 72.8oC for 15 seconds
d.
74.2oC
to 75.2oC for 30 seconds
73. Very good silage should have pH
ranging from
a.
4.2-4.5 c. 3.7-4.2
b.
4.5-4.8 d. 4.8-5.0
74. A deficiency condition enzootic
ataxia has been associated with pastures as low as 2-4 mg/kg DM of which
mineral element?
a.
Sulphur c. Magnesium
b.
Copper d. Zinc
75. Percentage of gross energy of feed
loss as methane in ruminants is
a.
5-6% c. 10-12%
b.
7-9% d. 3-4%
76. Cart wheel appearance present in
a.
Plasma
cell c. Monocyte
b.
Sertoli
Cell d. Neutrophils
77. The fetal hormone responsible for
initiating parturition in dam
a.
Progesterone c. Oxytocin
b.
Prostaglandin d. Estrogen
78. Choose the function of aldosterone
a.
Zn
mechanism
b.
Na
mechanism
c.
Co
mechanism
d.
Ca
mechanism
79. Function of oxytocin is
a.
Helps
in uterine inertia
b.
Helps
in growth of the ovarian follicle
c.
Helps
in spermatogenesis
d.
Helps
in alveolar development
80. Essential amino acid in poultry is
a.
Taurine c. Leucine
b.
Glycine d. Isoleucine
81. Curled toe paralysis occur due to
the deficiency of
a.
Vitamin
B1 (Thiamin)
b.
Vitamin
B12 (Cobalamin)
c.
Vitamin
B2 (Riboflavin)
d.
Vitamin
B9 (Folic acid)
82. Maximum transport of CO2 occur in
the form of
a.
Carbonate c. Free Form
b.
Bicarbonate d. None of these
83. Acid rain contains more
a.
Compound
of Nitrogen
b.
Compound
of Sodium
c.
Compound
of Carbon
d.
Compound
of Potassium
84. Level of coliform bacteria in per
ml of drinking water should be
a.
Zero c. 100
b.
10 d. <1000
85. Sedimentation method of faecal
examination is mostly used for
a.
Cestodes
eggs
b.
Trematodes
eggs
c.
Nematodes
eggs
d.
Protozoan
eggs
86. In which disease deficiency of
vitamin A and Vitamin B is found
a.
Balantidiosis
b.
Giardiasis
c.
Amoebiasis
d.
None
of the above
87. Energy produced in aerobic
respiration
a.
24Kcal c. 688Kcal
b.
680cal d. 48 Kcal
88. Uncinate process occurs in
a.
Scapula
c. Tibia and fibula
b.
Femur d.
Ribs of fowl
89. Which hormone secrets by ovary
a.
FSH c.
MS
b.
LH
d. Progesterone
90. Dental caries (tooth decay) occurs
due to deficiency of
a.
Riboflavin c. Vitamin B12
b.
Niacin d. Iron
91. Female of pig is called
a.
Gilt c. Nanny
b.
Dam d. Pullet
92. Half of herd is refer to
a.
Management
practice
b.
Siblings
c.
Bull
d.
None
of the above
93. Corpora Quardrgermina is a part of
a.
Fore
brain c. Hind brain
b.
Mid
brain d. Spinal cord
94. Trochlear nerve is
a.
Motor
nerve and largest
b.
Motor
nerve and smallest
c.
Sensory
nerve and largest
d.
Sensory
nerve and smallest
95. Red mite of poultry is
a.
Knemidocoptes
gallinae
b.
Argas
persicus
c.
Dermanyssus
gallinae
d.
Ornithodoros
96. Ethylene oxide is used as oxidant
by mixing with
a.
Cl c. So2
b.
Co2 d. O3 (Ozone)
97. Bacteriocidal effect is can be
obtained by
a.
Deep
freezing
b.
Tindalization
c.
Lipolization
d.
None
of these
98. DCP in molasses is
a.
5% c. 15%
b.
3% d. 10%
99. Mostly used organochlorine
insectide is
a.
DDT c.
Parathion
b.
Melathion d. Tubin
100. Bull
sperm is best presented as
a.
Straw
b.
Both
Straw and ampule
c.
Ampule
d.
Pellet
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